Bible Strands

Romans 3:29

Is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles too? Yes, of Gentiles too,

Berean Standard Bible

Follow its threads on the canvas →

Study note

Setting — Paul writes to the Roman church, posing a rhetorical question immediately after declaring justification by faith apart from the law. He frames the scope of divine authority to address a potential boundary between Jewish and Gentile believers.

The words — Ἰουδαίων (Ioudaiōn) means “of Jews,” and θεὸς (theos) means “God.” The particle οὐχί (ouchi) functions as a rhetorical prompt demanding a clear affirmative that God’s domain extends beyond a single ethnic group.

The thread — The text’s claim of God’s universal ownership runs parallel to Colossians 3:11, Zechariah 2:11, and Ephesians 3:6, which all record the dismantling of ethnic and social barriers under one divine authority.

Why it lands — It requires the reader to abandon exclusivist assumptions and acknowledge that the same covenant God governs all people. The text demands alignment with a faith that recognizes no ethnic boundary in divine justification.

Drafted by a language model from the text, its original words and its cross-references, then checked against them. It can still be wrong: open the verse in the app to report it.

The Greek words

King James Version

Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:

Cross-references